Using a possessive noun before a gerund

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anneloretrujillo
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Using a possessive noun before a gerund

Post by anneloretrujillo » 06 Jan 2017, 13:32

I was taught that it is always correct to use the possessive form of a noun before a gerund because the gerund is technically a noun, not a verb.

For example it should be

"She had to get over his leaving her."
Not,
"She had to get over him leaving her."

Could someone tell me if I am using the possessive and gerund correctly in that sentence?

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noel548
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Post by noel548 » 10 Jan 2017, 15:29

I certainly cannot and I would like to add that grammar is not really up to the task of determining what is correct and what not any more. Once you travel a little you'll find that one sentence is "correct" in one part of the English speaking word while in another part of the world the other sentence is "correct"

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Post by rssllue » 10 Jan 2017, 15:32

Oh for the days of Noah Webster when it all was defined for us!
~ occupare fati suffocavit

I will both lay me down in peace, and sleep: for Thou, LORD, only makest me dwell in safety. ~ Psalms 4:8

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LivreAmour217
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Post by LivreAmour217 » 13 Jan 2017, 14:44

I wish I could answer this! I feel compelled to do a Google search, but I have a funny feeling that I'll find more than one "correct" answer! I agree with what Noel said: it probably depends on where you're from!
"Reality is merely an illusion, albeit a very persistent one." - Albert Einstein

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