Some grammar rules (and embarrassing mistakes!) transcend the uniqueness of different regions and style guides. This new International Grammar section by OnlineBookClub.org ultimately identifies those rules thus providing a simple, flexible rule-set, respecting the differences between regions and style guides. You can feel free to ask general questions about spelling and grammar. You can also provide example sentences for other members to proofread and inform you of any grammar mistakes.
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Is the following sentence grammatically incorrect:
We have provided him the means of his spiritual liberation.
Why or why not?
"That virtue we appreciate is as much ours as another's. We see so much only as we possess." - Henry David Thoreau
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Yes its incorrect.
We have provided him the means to his spiritual liberation instead of the means of his spiritual liberation i think wil be correct
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I vote for "correct." "The means of" takes a noun or noun phrase, and "his spiritual liberation" is a noun phrase, so it's okay. I would remove the word "his" because that would be understood, but the sentence is not incorrect as is.
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Yes. I vote for "incorrect." I'd write it as "We have provided him with the means [to] his spiritual liberation."
A means [to] an end.
I tried digging further and I came across the explanation:
"means of = a type of" (or a part of)
So you'd say; Some people prefer running as a means of exercise, Air is the fastest means of transport, means of communication, means of entertainment, etc.
"means to = a method to achieve"
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